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The catarrhine who invented a perpetual motion machine, by dreaming at night and devouring its own dreams through the day.

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Brutus stabbing some little king wannabe.

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At least “subtle” is ultimately from Latin, and the Latin word (subtilis) does have a /b/.

There are worse cases - like the “s” in “island”. It was never pronounced.

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Probably not. Just watch from a safe distance, and perhaps add fuel to the fire screaming “sic semper tyrannis!”.

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My grandma would say “the devil fiddled so much with the son’s eye that he pierced it”. That’s the case here - user interface designers keep messing with shit that works fine, until it doesn’t.

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The “distributions” argument always smells like bullshit. Developers actually interested on supporting Linux usually stick to one or two distros of their choice. (Typically Ubuntu.)

Beyond that: I don’t play LoL, but the fact that they need such an aggressive rootkit as anti-cheat hints poor game design. As in, why are your players so eager to cheat?

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Milk has a specific gravity slightly higher than 1, so that isn’t accurate.

In this context milk is a bad example because the difference between 1.03g/ml and 1g/ml is negligible in a kitchen. Even oil (0.92g/ml) is close enough.

This matters the most for stuff like below (with 1cup = 240ml):

  • honey: 340g/cup = 1.4g/ml
  • sugar: 200g/cup = 0.85g/ml [varies depending on granularity]
  • flour: 120g/cup = 0.5g/ml [sieved, and “properly” measured. It’s a PITA to measure it by volume.]

Also, “cups” and “feet” aren’t arbitrary.

All units are arbitrary, be them metric or esoteric.

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I’m not American but this is likely due to tradition. Recipe measures it in cups, you follow recipe, you get used to cups, then when writing your own recipe down you do it by cups.

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The context [SIC - rationale] is that if you are going to hand wave away a 3% difference in a quantity, then having to weigh everything probably isn’t important.

That’s poor reasoning; ignoring a tiny difference doesn’t imply ignoring larger ones. Myself mentioned three cases where the difference matters, with one (flour) being highly variable.

A better argument to defend your point would be that most differences in the kitchen are tiny.

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We told him “fuck cars”, but not this way!

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This legend is from the 50s, I believe. The city is Curitiba.

A man and a woman danced through the night; and, after leaving the danceteria, it was cold outdoors, so he lent her his black cape. He takes her home and then leaves, only to realise too late that he forgot his black cape with her.

In the next day, he goes back to her home, to retrieve his black cape and flirt a bit. Her parents meet him; and they tell him that their daughter passed away years and years ago. They even show him a photo of her, and to his puzzlement the woman in the photo - allegedly dead for years - was identical to the one who danced with him, in the preceding day.

He asks her parents about her tomb. He goes to the cemetery, still a bit sceptic, but with some carnations to leave on her tomb “just in case”. She was indeed buried where her parents indicated. And his black cape was there, neatly folded, over the tomb.

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That’s so cool. Even with a rational explanation, I bet that the vapor coming off the cave is still creepy.

[CW: Slurs/pejoratives, morality] When is it considered immoral if someone is saying something that they know is pejorative and they are not intending it as disparaging towards the original group?

I’ve heard this sentiment that it is immoral a lot on the internet, and I would like to hear more about it. It feels intuitively correct to me, but I would like to hear the reasoning behind it....

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Context is king, queen, bishop, knight and rook. It’s all about what you convey, within a context; what you mean or your “intentions” might be important for you, but other people don’t have access to what you think - they only have access to what you say and how you behave.

That applies to any word, regardless of being considered a slur or not.

So, focusing on your example (calling someone “queer” as “weird”): by default people nowadays associate the word with LGBTQ+. Is there context to cancel that association?

lvxferre, (edited )
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Yeah, because keeping a record of what you “train” a model with is such esoteric shit, on the same level as afterlife. /s

(Hint: read the bloody article.)

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Flip it - instead of “your convenience is inconveniencing the others”, frame it as “the others’ convenience is inconveniencing you”. It’s the same thing, but people accept the later better.

Specially because IMO the focus should not be on dictating individual actions, but gathering collective support for political decisions.

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Being stuck in traffic is a bad example because it’ll only affect you if you’re driving. Better examples focus on things that’ll affect you regardless of you driving or not, like:

  • air pollution - the fact that you are breathing all that NOx and ozone produced by the others’ cars
  • wasting urban space - that bakery could be next door, but it’s further away because all those car drivers need lots of lanes and parking spots for cars
  • risk of being run over by a car - or, one of the reasons why your kids can’t play outdoors, like you did in your childhood
  • etc.

Beyond that, both are rationally equivalent. But their rhetoric power is different, as one plays along with your desire to live a better life, another with your conscience (most people don’t give a shit about the others).

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The “fun” part is that they’ll get away with it. Google likely did the same with other platforms; so if it sues OpenAI, it’s creating a big precedent against itself.

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Three decades, two astronomy degrees, 5 years operating a planetarium, and 5 years as a guide at the local observatory later, and I’m fully prepared.

Me, watching a total eclipse 30 years ago: “MUUUUUM! WHERE’S THE OLD CAMERA FILM? I WANT TO MAKE ECLIPSE GLASSES!” Then I was fully prepared!

It was exciting. (I hope that those folks in MX/US/CA have fun.)

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I watched the whole video, and I recommend others to do the same. I’ll just comment with additional info here.

Cerquiglini’s “thanks to French that English is international”

That’s a silly claim. English became international due to… floating wood.

I’m being cheeky but serious - a language spreads not based on its intrinsic features, or from which languages it might have borrowed vocabulary from, but by piggybacking on the power associated with its speakers. In this case, the English and then British navy (that I called “floating wood”).

The most meaningful event in English’s history

It wasn’t the Norman conquest, but the very formation of the Anglic languages*, through the invasion of British Isles by people from Jutland, Anglia and Old Saxony. They settled into an island, geographically isolated from other speakers in continental Europe, preventing sound and grammatical changes from “flowing” back and forth.

That’s why most “oddities” in English - like do-support, for example - are shared by neither the Romance languages like French, nor the West Germanic languages like Dutch or German; those “oddities” were born in the islands.

*note: Scots is better addressed as its own language than as an English dialect. Same deal with the [now extinct] Yola and Fingallian.

Old English vs. contemporary English

The biggest differences between both are, in my view

  1. Lack of case system.
  2. Lack of grammatical gender.
  3. The vowel system.

Differences #1 and #2 were not caused by French interference, but due to an internal process - the erosion of the word endings. Case and gender were mostly marked by those endings, that often relied on vowel alternations and nasals, that got shortened and eventually elided - prompting changes that, while might resemble French’s lack of a case system, show completely unique traits, such as lack of number agreement (compare “the red houses” with "les maisons rouges). Also worth noting that French has a M/F gender system, English went from M/F/N to zero.

(A similar process would happen independently with another West Germanic language - Afrikaans.)

By the way, #3 was caused by rather recent changes, starting four centuries after 1066.

The borrowings

Now, regarding the borrowings themselves. It’s true that English borrows a lot of words from both Norman and French*, but… here’s the catch: the vocabulary of a language is like the fur of a critter, highly visible but less important than what’s inside - the grammar, or the critter itself. It’ll exemplify it with two sentences:

  1. Their code resembles spaghetti, amigo.
  2. *Apples an two me eating.

Which one of those is recognisably English? #1 contains no native word, but it follows English grammar to the letter; #2 contains nothing but native vocabulary, but the grammar is rubbish. It’s #1.

And even when you look at the vocabulary, some parts are more important than others - the core (words with grammatical role that you use all the time). And the core is still distinctively West Germanic, with a single exception (“they” - borrowed from North Germanic).

*just like Scots vs. English, Norman vs. French are better handled as separated Romance varieties. By the way, the “CH vs. K” and “S vs. CH” correspondences reflect the fact that Norman did not undergo what’s called in French “the second palatalisation”, it only underwent the first one, from Latin. It also missed the /tʃ/→/ts/ fronting from most other W. Romance languages.

Sorry for this wall of text. And thank you for sharing this video! I do think that French influence on English is overestimated, but it’s still interesting info regardless.

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The realisation of that -re is highly variable in English. Some speakers convey it as Ø (nothing), some as /ɹə/ or /ə/ (non-rhotic) or /ə˞/ (rhotic).

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Prescriptively speaking I think that all three (nothing, -re, -er) are legitimate; for reference the word is /ma.kabʁ/ in French, the cluster is clearly illegal in English so the variations can be seen as different “repairing” strategies. (I’d probably render it as /məkɑ:be/ but my non-native pronunciation is strongly biased towards British varieties, specially RP.)

Note YT comments are often a bit silly with prescriptions. Like trying to correct Steejo (a Scottish YouTuber) for, well, speaking Scottish English.

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That view of the celestial body dying during an eclipse was surprisingly common among the ancients. For example, among the Guaraní there’s the lore that eclipses are caused by the Charía, a giant blue jaguar in the sky:

  • Lunar eclipse - Charía kills Moon while fishing, as shown by the reddish colour around the lunar eclipse (it’s Moon’s blood). The eclipse ends when Sun resurrects his younger brother from the bones.
  • Solar eclipse - Charía kills Sun’s son, and Sun himself fights Charía. They knock each other down, but Sun stands up again while Charía falsely believes to have won the fight.
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For reference: the baths in the city were destroyed exactly a hundred years later, in 375 CE. So odds are that the fort was mildly effective to keep the barbarians out.

And by “barbarians” I mean likely Franks. In the long term… well.

This is a map of the Franconian dialects. I edited it to show Aquae Granni / Aachen, right in the middle. “Franconian”, “Frankish”, you should get the picture.

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Odds are that the fort worked rather well in the short term, and that Aquae Granni / Aachen fell for logistic reasons.

Context: the Roman Empire was a mess back then, being split twice (by Diocletan then Constantine), between the fort being built and the city falling for tribals. Couple that with Aquae Granni being mostly a vacation town in the middle of nowhere, and why it fell becomes clear - “too low priority, we aren’t sending supplies there, let the citizens fend off themselves against the bar-bar-bar”.

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