dmm, 22 days ago (edited 21 days ago) @johncarlosbaez Thanks. I came to that conclusion as well. I need to take a different approach to the proof to emphasize that showing that the integral [M \int\limits_{0}^{\infty}e^{(c-s)t}dt ] converges means that the Laplace transform exists.. Thanks again for connecting the dots...
@johncarlosbaez Thanks. I came to that conclusion as well. I need to take a different approach to the proof to emphasize that showing that the integral
[M \int\limits_{0}^{\infty}e^{(c-s)t}dt ] converges means that the Laplace transform exists..
Thanks again for connecting the dots...