Can’t speak of other languages, but in German anyway the sentence is exactly the same. “Ich bin zuhause” meaning word-for-word “I am home”. Same issue, normally a location would have a preposition and an article. Reasoning is also the same as in english, “home” and “zuhause” are not a location but a state in this case.
Yes, “home” and “zuhause” mean the same thing but they aren’t exactly the same, zuhause is a compound word. English also has compound words, for example “aboard” and “abed”. The English word isn’t “ahouse”; it is simply “home”.
True. I was more going on the idea of OP that it must confuse english learners. I often feel people who only know one language tend to forget that most latin languages tend to have similar quirks, often making such quirks in a foreign language rather natural.
In this case, it’s nothing to do with Latin. German is not a Latin language, and old (pre-Norman) English is closer to German than anything else. It’s the shared Germanic heritage which gives us this quirk.
Absolutely. The fundamental thing about the rules of grammar is that they’re more like guidelines. In fact, I think OP’s example is hardly the most confusing or inconsistent thing in English, which is not to say that the question isn’t a really good one. The quirks, similarities and differences are one thing that makes language-learning really interesting.
Most people are talking the infinitive case for “eat”, but I’d like to point out the verb, “have had”, is the present perfect case. Still confusing and still agree with your simplification of “I ate too much”. But there’s still a meaningful difference between the two sentences.
“I had too much to eat” would be past tense, meaning you ate too much, say, last week
“I have too much to eat” is future tense, meaning you went to the buffet and got carried away, now you’ve got a massive plate of chicken in front of you
So "I have (right at this moment) had (just ingested) too much to eat (and now I’m farting a lot)
Also, in this case “to eat” isn’t a noun, it’s the infinitive verb
No, the way people say it makes it obvious that it’s a set phrase. Like in Japanese they say “tadaima” and people reply “okaeri” and you just know that it’s a thing and don’t question it much. It’s until much later when people point it out that you go, ohh yeahhh.
Your instincts are right in that English as a second language is tricksy and annoying. The “I’m home” thing never occured to me, but there’s plenty of stumbling blocks. They’re, their, and there. Idioms like “piece of cake”. It’s a long list. Not the hardest of all languages to learn, but it is confusing in places.
Is it truly an adverb, though. Would that statement be considered proper English? It is a colloquialism, or some might say a metaphor, but is it considered an appropriate use of the English language to use that type of phrase? I could just imagine someone’s English professor returning an essay with a red line through that phrase.
You’re thinking in terms of location, rather than state-of-being. “I’m home” is your status.
“I’m driving, I am bored, I’m safe, I am away”… None of those sound weird, do they? This, combined with the more technical grammar rules others have commented…
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