They’ll say “the enforcement mechanism of the 14th Amendment isn’t clear, so it’s up to Congress to determine if someone is in violation and must be kept off the ballot.”
Which would be such a stupid take, because if someone were deemed ineligible, Congress can override that per the last sentence of section 3
But Congress may by a vote of two-thirds of each House, remove such disability.
Why would Congress be designated the one to make that decision if it’s also the one to override it? Especially when 2/3 is a pretty big threshold to make?
I’m not saying you’re wrong in predicting the possibility, it would just be a terrible ruling if you’re right.